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Monday, February 21, 2011

John 1:18 ἐκεῖνος: christology — part one

The founding fathers of the b-greek forum didn't want to have people arguing about christology or any other theology for that matter. So for going on 20 years the moderators have been shutting down discussions that take a theological turn. Today, Edgar Foster[1], who is certainly no stranger to b-greek,  showed up with a christology question. It should be no surprise to anyone that he was politely answered and then the thread was more or less terminated. Here is Foster's first post[2]  


Greetings to all,

The text: Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.

Assuming that the reading above is to be preferred, how would you understand the referent of ἐκεῖνος? Is it God with respect to his essence (in view of the anarthrous Θεὸν) that μονογενὴς θεὸς "explained" or is it more strictly speaking, the Father that was explained? It could be the Father specifically since John writes about εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς

Regards,

Edgar

This is Foster's second post, a clarification:

Carl and B-Greekers,

My apologies for asking the wrong question. I should have paid more attention when typing this email. Of course, you are right about the referent of ἐκεῖνος. What I should have asked concerns the implicit object of  ἐξηγήσατο in John 1:18. The text states that μονογενὴς θεὸς "explained" [understood "him"].

Who did the Son likely explain? Was it God in his essence (since Θεὸν is anarthrous) or was it the Father more specifically? I hope my question is worded properly this time around.

Thank you,

Edgar Foster

Here is the text again:

John 1:18 Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο. — NA27

John 1:18  θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε· ⸂μονογενης θεος⸃ ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο. — SBLGNT M. Holmes.

John 1:18  θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο — Robinson-Pierpont

John 1:18 No one has ever seen God; the only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known. — RSV

John 1:18  No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.    — ESV

The b-greek answers (not christology) are found here: Carl Conrad  and George Somsel  followed by Carl's closing comments. The christology question is going to take a little work and will appear in part two. Meanwhile your welcome to leave comments. Moderation is turned on so it might be a little while before your comment shows up.

[1] For those who do not know Edgar Foster, try a google on Greg Stafford and Edgar Foster, that should get you headed in the right direction.

[2] The b-greek transliteration has been replaced.

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